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Old 16-05-2015, 10:10 PM
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Thumbs up The curious case of the 32 Amos police reports

An honorable member of the Coffee Shop Has Just Posted the Following:

The following questions crossed my mind after reading the judgement by the court which judged Amos to be guilty and from the various newspaper reports on the case:

a) It seems that the defence had access to only 2 of the 32 (thirty-two!) police reports which were made against Amos. How is it possible for the defence to have a creditable case without being enlightened what was being complained against Amos?

As a sub-set to the above question, does the number of police reports on a particular person/matter have an impact on whether the case is to be proceeded with? Generally speaking, why would anyone want to make yet another police report after it was reported initially that 19 police reports had already been filed? Or is it as a matter of making political points, as indicated by former AG Walter Woon in ST report last Saturday?

b) What does the law say about people who make police reports against someone in terms of their vested/business interest? Do they need to provide proof that they had suffered as a result of the actions of another party?

c) Does the law pertaining to police reports allow “anonymous” (as in the aggrieved party) does not have to be available to provide evidence in court if the defence so requires? In other words, can I make a police report against my neighbour but I don’t have to support my case if my neighbour feels aggrieved and that the accusation is a false charge?

d) Are each of the police reports evaluated on their validity before they are tendered as evidence or provided to the judge?

e) Who decides what is to be tendered as evidence? From press reports, it seems that the prosecutor tried to prevent a part of Amos’ statement from being tendered in court. Following a short tussle with the defence lawyer, the judge allowed it.

LAYMAN

* Submitted by TRE reader.

http://www.tremeritus.com/2015/05/16...olice-reports/


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